Jn 1:3-4; Punctuation

From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Sat Apr 04 1998 - 12:56:44 EST


On Fri, 3 Apr 1998 15:06:37 -0600 "Carl W. Conrad"

<snip>

>I'm reminded too of the (perhaps) more weighty
>problem of the punctuation of of John 1:3-4, where we must determine
>whether hO GEGONEN begins a new clause/sentence and construes with
>verse 4 or whether it is more properly to be understood as the
conclusion of
>verse 3. Metzger's note on this question has, since I first read it,
been
>absolutely fascinating in its assertion that the conventional
punctuation
>(i.e. interpretation) was changed because the way it had been read (as
>UBS4 and NA27 print it) appeared to aid and abet the theological enemy
of
>the day's orthodoxy.

Yes, the history here is fascinating and instructive. The consensus of
the ante-Nicene writers took hO GEGONEN with what follows. Nevertheless,
according to Metzger, when the Arian heretics came in and sought to prove
their doctrine of the creation of the Holy Spirit from such, orthodox
writers began to take hO GENONEN with the preceding in order to refute
this claim.. Hmm, reminds me of how some orthodox writers today
erroneously championed Colwell's rule as a rebuttal of what they regarded
as heretical interpretations of Jn 1:1c.

Instead of taking EN AUTWi locatively, let's try taking it instrumentally
in parallel with the preceding DI' AUTOU. The sense then becomes: what
has come into being through him, through his creative work, was life.
Nothing was created by him dead.

Furthermore, hH ZWH HN TO FWS TWN ANQRWPWN. Creation itself, and
physical life in particular, is that which first reveals the glory of God
to men. As Paul would say, from what has been created the invisible
attributes of God are clearly evident (Rom 1). This is natural
revelation versus special revelation (developed later by the only
begotten God who exegetes the Father, 1:18ff).

I throw this out for your consideration, certainly having no ax to grind
and seeking only the truth.

Paul Dixon

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