From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Mon Nov 09 1998 - 10:18:03 EST
In a message dated 11/9/98 4:46:30 AM Pacific Standard Time, furuli@online.no
writes:
<< Kyle, however, wrote: "Wallace's points seem very sound and convincing. In
the footnotes, he lists some of the Biblical passages where PRWTOTOKOS refers
to preeminence--1 Chron 5:1; Ps 89:27; Rom 8:29; Rev 1:5." What does the
phrase "where PRWTOTOKOS refers to preeminence" mean? None of the passages
referred to indicate a *lexical* meaning for PRWTOTOKOS different from "the
one who is born first". Was Wallace using pragmatic implicature rather than
semantics? >>
I believe so. In fact, three of the pasages to which Wallace refers have a
temporal meaning, with preeminence following as a result of the temporal
priority. The other, Psalm 89:27, is figurative, as shown by the use of
TIQHMI.
Also, either Christ is the actual firstborn of God, or someone else is. If the
use of PRWTOTOKOS in Col. 1:15 is figurative, then who is it that Christ
supplants as firstborn?
Greg Stafford
--- B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:07 EDT