From: Jay Adkins (JAdkins264@aol.com)
Date: Tue Feb 16 1999 - 07:54:18 EST
TI" is used in 493 passages in the NT according to a search in Gramcord.
According to BDB/Thayer it is translated in the "AV - what 260, who 102,
why 67, whom 25, which 17, misc 67; 538". Every single translation I have
checked has used the word Îwhat' in Mark 6:2. Can someone please tell me
why it can not be translated Îwhy'? Using Gramcord to search the NASU NT
for every use of the term Îwhy' produced no uses of the form ÎTI"' only
ÎTI.' There were a few other terms used, but never ÎTI".' If the reason
is that only the neuter singular accusative can be translated Îwhy', please
tell me why that is. The context of Mark 6:2 would seem to support the
question, "why is wisdom given to him?"
Thank you for helping an idiot who dosn't like to agree just because
everyone else does. Sure would save time if I did though. I just like to
understand why.
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