From: Lee Nunes (leem@massed.net)
Date: Sun Mar 28 1999 - 23:19:10 EST
Can anyone tell me the reason for the translation of PROGINOSKW as
"foreordained" in 1 Pet 1:20, when it is translated "foreknow" in many
other places? (1 Pet 1:2, Rom 8, Rom 11:2) Don't worry about appearing to
be Calvinist or Arminian, I just want to know what the nature of PROGINOSKW
is, and how this may support either view. Is Peter's usage unique? Or is
it used similar ways in other literature?
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