From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Thu Jul 15 1999 - 11:40:46 EDT
On Thu, 15 Jul 1999 11:22:49 EDT "Paul S. Dixon" <dixonps@juno.com>
writes:
Please excuse the scribal error below.
>Yes, these verbs have perfect/pluperfect morphological forms and
>are semantically equivalent to present and imperfect forms, but
>exactly how would their inclusion in the data skew anything?
>Their forms don't change, do they? If not, then A=B, and we
>aren't really concerned about that anyhow. It is only the C and
>D part of the data, where the perfect/pluperfect form is changing
>to the aorist, that we are concerned about. If so, then their
>inclusion would only make the outcome less noticeable, but
>it should still be noticeable. Again, if A=B and C>D, then
>(A+B)>(C+D).
Obviously, the last inequality should read, (A+C)>(B+D).
Paul Dixon
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