From: Steven Craig Miller (scmiller@www.plantnet.com)
Date: Fri Jan 28 2000 - 07:50:10 EST
<x-flowed>To: Rod Whitacre, et al.,
<< Those interested in the subject should consult Elliot C. Maloney, 
Semitic Interference in Marcan Syntax, SBL Dissertation Series 51 (Chico: 
Scholars Press, 1981). >>
That is one place to look, another would be "Aramaic Sources of Mark's 
Gospel" by Maurice Casey (Cambridge UP, 1998).
Of course, the idea that one (or more) of the gospels might be originally a 
translation from an earlier Aramaic or semitic source has been batted 
around ever since Christians first started guessing (and creating legends) 
as to the origin of these gospels. And when the notion of an Aramaic or 
semitic source became heavily challenged, the somewhat safer argument was 
put forth that the Hellenistic Greek used had been heavily influenced by 
their original semetic tongue, or to use Maloney's phrase, there was 
"semitic interference" in the Greek syntax. But all of this is terribly 
hard to prove. It seems to me that it would only be prudent for one not to 
jump to the conclusion that something in Mark's gospel is due to "semitic 
interference" until one has some sort of support for such a notion (and 
even then, there will bound to be some challenges).
-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller@www.plantnet.com
FWIW: I'm neither a clergy-person, nor an academic (and I have no post-grad 
degrees).
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