[b-greek] Re: Original NT in Greek?

From: Dave Washburn (dwashbur@nyx.net)
Date: Thu Apr 26 2001 - 16:44:42 EDT


Jack,
> > > Hi!
> > > Thanks for the information about Matthew 16:18, and quickly (before
> > > this whole discussion gets cancelled) what is the other 'word play'
> > > somewhere in John 21?
> >
> > Keith,
> > The other one is an extended one in the conversation between
> > Jesus and Peter, where Jesus uses AGAPAW for "do you love
> > me?" and Peter replies with FILEW instead. The interplay has to
> > do with the nuances of these two words, since the former means
> > "do you love me enough to die for me?" while the latter means "I
> > like you a lot." I'd be interested to know what the Aramaic (or
> > Hebrew) words are that could have been used for this subtle
> > exchange.
>
> The big difference between Greek and Aramaic is that Greek is a language of
> nuance
> and has a number of words for one meaning. Aramaic is a more..uh...thrifty
> language
> that has several meanings for one word. The Aramaic rxm (racham) can have
> both
> the meaning of agaph and filew. The LXX uses agaph for the Hebrew )hbh
> (ahabah) in
> Canticles 2:4, 5, 7 and elsewhere...which can also mean either affection or
> love.

Yes. And hence my contention that the exchange in John 21 must
have taken place in Greek or the interplay of nuances would not
have been discernible.

> I believe the agapaw/filew play is a device of the evangelist and not to the
> HJ.
> It's purpose may be involved in Yohannine polemic to Peter and to bracket
> the thrice denial with the thrice "hesitant" affirmation.

I don't get into such things. I take it at face value because I have
no reason not to. But that's outside the scope of this list ;-)


Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
"You just keep thinking, Butch. That's what you're good at."


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