From: Steven Lo Vullo (doulos@merr.com)
Date: Sat Jan 26 2002 - 17:22:47 EST
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On Friday, January 25, 2002, at 11:13 AM, Randy wrote:
> Greetings,
> I was talking to a person on another forum and he maintained that
> grammatically HO KYRIOS in John 20:28 was referring to God the Father.
> Setting aside theological considerations, does the grammer allow for
> this
> understanding?
John 20.28: APEKRIQH QWMAS KAI EIPEN AUTWi: hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO QEOS
MOU.
From a purely grammatical point of view, it seems highly unlikely that
Thomas was addressing anyone but Jesus. AUTWi ("to him") no doubt refers
to Jesus, since it is the indirect object of APEKRIQH ("answered') and
EIPEN ("said"). The only person in the context whom Thomas could have
"answered" is Jesus, who in the previous verse said, "Put your finger
here and see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it in my side. Do not
doubt but believe.” This being the case, it is also important to
understand also that hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO QEOS MOU is a direct statement
which is the object of the verbs of communication APEKRIQH ("answered")
and EIPEN ("said"). AUTWi, as I said, is grammatically the indirect
object. So, to bring this out in more awkward English, we may render,
"Thomas answered and said 'My Lord and my God' to him [Jesus]."
==========
Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI
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