Dear friends: I have a question concerning 1Cor 14:5: TELW DE PANTAS hUMAS LALEIN GLOSSAIS, MALLON DE hINA PROFHTEUHTE, MEIZWN DE hO PROFHTEUWN H hO LALWN GLWSSAIS, EKTOS EI MH DIERMHNEUHi . . . In this phrase EKTOS EI MH is usually translated as "unless [he interprets]". If I understand correctly, to say "unless" EI MH would be enough, and EKTOS has here the same meaning. Is it redundancy, or having both EKTOS and EI MH plays some role here? Thank you in advance. Dmitriy Reznik ________________________________________________________________ YOU'RE PAYING TOO MUCH FOR THE INTERNET! Juno now offers FREE Internet Access! Try it today - there's no risk! For your FREE software, visit: http://dl.www.juno.com/get/tagj. --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu