Dear Friends, 1 Peter 2:24 in speaking of Christ's suffering makes reference to the famous Servant Song of Isaiah 53. The LXX of Isaiah 53:5 reads TW MWLWPI AUTOU hHMEIS IAQHMEN, but Peter writes it as hOU TW MWLWPI IAQHTE. Can anyone comment on the difference between IAQHMWN and IAQHTE? I take it that Peter is deliberately trying to show that Isaiah 53:6 is fulfilled in Christ. Many thanks in advance. Tony Costa, Master's student University of Toronto __________________________________________________________ Get your FREE personalized e-mail at http://www.canada.com --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu