Dear Bhagavatas: I am releasing the reply of Sri Dileepan. I reiterate that any responses may not be posted to "Sri Ranga Sri" As for my understanding on this, it is based on the inputs in KaalakshEpams while in India and I will reply the point after locating the source. Thank you Dasoham Anbil Ramaswamy ==================================================================== --- In SriRangaSri@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "dileepan" <dileepan@xxxx> wrote: > Further discussions on the subject may be taken up in private mail with him. > > You may wish to mark a copy to my personal id Ramanbil@xxxx for my information. ============================================================= This is an important matter for Sampradayam. My inquiry was not intended as a flame. My hope is that people gathered in this forum may think about the subtle misunderstanding that may be caused by usage of the term post-vedic. In as much as it is intended for everyone, I do not want to take it to private mail. Therefore, I hope Sri Anbil Swami will pass this mail on to the entire forum. First, thanks to Sri Anbil Swami for citing respected Sri V.Sadagopan Swami who used this term in an academic way in a different forum. I am interested in the view of others as well, in particular, Sri Anbil Swami. In general, from a Sri Vaishnava POV, I tend to think all time periods are Vedic. Due to the ascendancy or decline of Asuric nature, human beings may ignore or follow Vedic principles to a lesser or greater extent. Nevertheless, I think all periods are Vedic. After all Vedas have no beginning or end. -- Dileepan
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