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SriRangaSri List Archive: Message 00043 Oct 2003

 
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Dear Bhagavatas:
I am releasing the reply of Sri Dileepan. 
I reiterate that any responses may not be posted to "Sri Ranga Sri"
As for my understanding on this, it is based on the inputs in KaalakshEpams 

while in India and I will reply the point after locating the source.
Thank you
Dasoham
Anbil Ramaswamy
====================================================================
--- In SriRangaSri@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "dileepan" <dileepan@xxxx> wrote:
> Further discussions on the subject may be taken up in private mail 
with him. 
> 
> You may wish to mark a copy to my personal id Ramanbil@xxxx for my 
information.
=============================================================


This is an important matter for Sampradayam. My inquiry was 
not intended as a flame. My hope is that people gathered in 
this forum may think about the subtle misunderstanding that may 
be caused by usage of the term post-vedic. In as much as it 
is intended for everyone, I do not want to take it to private 
mail. Therefore, I hope Sri Anbil Swami will pass this mail on
to the entire forum.

First, thanks to Sri Anbil Swami for citing respected Sri
V.Sadagopan Swami who used this term in an academic way
in a different forum. I am interested in the view of others
as well, in particular, Sri Anbil Swami.

In general, from a Sri Vaishnava POV, I tend to think all 
time periods are Vedic. Due to the ascendancy or decline 
of Asuric nature, human beings may ignore or follow Vedic 
principles to a lesser or greater extent. Nevertheless, I 
think all periods are Vedic. After all Vedas have no 
beginning or end.

-- Dileepan





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