I want to discuss the interpretation of the first word, γνωρίζω. According to the lexica (BDAG, LSJ), γνωρίζω means to "make known," "disclose," "reveal," "point out," "cause information to be known," yet that's not how the NRSV and other translations are rendering this word. Rather, they have “I want you to know” (NRSV, NIV, NAB, NET, NJB) or “I would have you know” (NASB, ESV, RSV), adding some desiderative "want" or "would" to the translation. (Note that the KJV has the simple present, “I certify to you," as do Brooks and Winberry, "I declare to you").Gal 1:11 wrote:Γνωρίζω γὰρ ὑμῖν, ἀδελφοί, τὸ εὐαγγέλιον τὸ εὐαγγελισθὲν ὑπ᾽ ἐμοῦ ὅτι οὐκ ἔστιν κατὰ ἄνθρωπον·
For I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin; (NRSV)
What's the reason behind interpreting γνωρίζω desideratively as "want you to know" rather than simply "let you know"? Is it some interpretation of the present tense, and if so why should it be superior?