TTD: Brother Akbar, what passage of John's gospel are you referring
to when you say that the word "Holy" has been added? I have looked
through all the passages I mentioned above a second time, this times
paying careful attention to the critical apparatus which discusses
the various manuscripts. I do not see any manuscript indicating
the word "Holy" has been indicated.
>(B) The term Spirit refers to "The Spirit of Truth".
TTD: The text states this already.
>(C) The terms "The Spirit of Truth" and "The Spirit of Error"
> are designated names for living individuals in the Bible.
> Furthermore, these terms are used as such by Apostle John.
> Please see 1 John 4:6.
TTD: This is an interesting point and, perhaps, not to be argued
with! Maybe the discourse in John's gospel regarding the "Holy"
spirit and the term 'Spirit' in the 1st. letter are related?
Nonetheless, I am not sure.
>(D) No where in the Bible the term "The Spirit of Truth" is
> designated for "The Holy Spirit".
TTD: O.K. Brother Akbar, here is the evidence for the Holy Spirit
being called the Spirit of Truth. In John's gospel 14:26 the "Holy
Spirit" is called the "Advocate." In John 15:26 the "Advocate is
called the "Spirit of Truth." Notice, the "Holy Spirit" is the
"Advocate" and the "Advocate" is called the "Spirit of Truth."
Thus, the "Holy Spirit" is the "Spirit of Truth."
In John's gospel they are one in the same person, using different
>(E) You have quoted 14:16-17,26;15:26 in your response.
> In each of the above verses, John has used the pronoun
> "He" and "Him". John has used these pronouns for more than
> a dozen times while referring to Paraclete.
> The question is why are Christians over
> looking this obvious FACT and believe John meant "It"
> instead when he did not use that pronoun once???
> To say the author did not know the Greek grammar is to say
> ignore what is written and adopt what you think
> ought to have been written, instead. A dangerous precedent.
TTD: The answer to this question is simple to answer, though I am
not able to supply an answer at the moment. What is needed are
examples of Greek neuter nouns syntactically related to masculine or
feminine pronouns. Your question, if I understand you correctly, is
how can John refer the Holy Spirit, which is neuter in gender, to
something masculine. There is an answer, trust me, and I will find
it! One of the recipients of this message will be a discussion
group dedicated to the study of the Greek New Testament. Maybe one
of the readers will have an answer. If not, I promise to reply to
you (God willing) this weekend.
>(F) You have quoted 15:7-8,13. They do not refer to
TTD: See my above comments about the Paraclete being the spirit of
truth and ect (Below letter 'D').
>(G) Why use the term "another" Paraclete?
> Are there TWO Holy Spirits? We know the Holy Spirit was
> present when the prophecy was made and even before that time.
TTD: I think I answered this already in a previous message.
>(H) Why was the arrival of Holy Spirit made conditional and
> subject to the departure of Jesus? See 16:7 If I do not
> go away, the Paraclete shall not come to you. but if I
> go, I will send him to you.
>(I) In view of (H) above there should be
> "Old" Holy Spirit and "New" Holy Spirit -OR-
> the POST Holy Spirit and the CURRENT Holy Spirit!
>I hope you would see the other side of the coin.
TTD: Brother Akbar, regarding point (H), I think you have raised a
good THEOLOGICAL question. These, honestly, are the questions I
find least interesting, but I will answer it anyway in a latter
peace and love,
Timothy T. Dickens
Simon Peter said to them, 'Let Mary leave us, for women are not worthy of life,' Jesus said, 'I myself shall make her male, so that she too may become a living spirit resembling male. For every woman who will make herself male will enter the kingdom of Heave