I am writing this message ahead of time, letting readers know that I
am going to carbon copy a second letter to b-Greek regarding a
question about a Greek grammar, and the Holy Spirit in the gospel of
John. I am specifically looking for examples in the Greek NT, LXX
or whatever Greek writings that illustrate neuter nouns being
syntactically related to masculine pronouns. My friend to whom I am
The question is why are Christians over looking this obvious
FACT (John 14:16-17,26;15:26) and believe John meant "It"
instead when he did not use that pronoun once??? To say the
author did not know the Greek grammar is to say ignore what is
written and adopt what you think ought to have been written,
instead. A dangerous precedent.
I am wondering if any one can find ahead of time a few
references illustrating Greek neuter nouns being syntactically
related to masculine pronouns. I do have A. T. Robertson's Greek
grammar and H. W. Smythe, but at the moment, I have not been able to
find any examples. Can someone please help?
Thanks Peace and love
Timothy T. Dickens
"No man should bring children into the world who is unwilling to
continue their nurture and education." Plato's Crito, Section 45D.