The clumsiness that I perceive with Latin as a model for Greek is the various
ways Latin has been pronounced in different arenas. In British schools, C's sounded
like s's as in Cicero "SISS-a-roh" rather than KEEK-a-ROH and the Veni, Vidi, Vici
"VAYnee, VEEdee, VEEsee" rather than WAYnee, WEEdee, WEEkee." Add to that Church Latin,
pronounced as Italian:
PAHter NAHster kwi es in CHAYloh, sanctifiCHAYtor nomen tuum, adVAYniat....
bPATer noh-ster kwi es in KI-loh, sacteefeeKAYtor nomen tuum, adWAYniat....
I wonder if it is not better to go to the original semitic source of the Greek
alphabet. If the Y of EYAGGELION was a vav, as was it's proto-sinaitic antecedent, then
was it pronounced as a waw or a vav? EVanGAYlee0n or eh-wan-GAYleeon? Certainly not
OOwanGAYleeon. Do we take the lead from the Latin V as a waw, or the semitic vav as a