Carlton L. Winbery (
Mon, 2 Sep 1996 11:33:06 +0400

>A (probably trivial) question of grammar:
>Should anything be read into the uses of the two different forms of acc.
>sing. of ChARIS: ChARITA (e.g. Ac 24:27) and ChARIN (e.g. in the enigmatic
>ChARIN ANTI ChARITOS of Jn 1:16)? Or should this be considered nothing
>more than essentially a question of orthography?
>(BTW, I'm aware of the role of ChARIN as a preposition --e.g. Lk 7:47. On
>the other hand, it seems prehaps curious that, given the opportunity for
>confusion between the two uses of ChARIN, that ChARIN remains by far the
>more common of the two forms available for use as a noun.)

In the morphology that James Brooks and I did we put the following footnote
on page 63 to the acc. of the noun CARIS;

"Dental stem nouns not accented on the penult, i.e. barytone ( 78), tend
to have N rather than A in the accusative singularr. . . .
For example CARIN appears 42 times, CARITA only twice. ELPIS, being
accented on the ultima, has only A, but examples of N in the accusative of
D-stem nouns are ERIS/ERIN, KLEIS/KLEIN (despite being accented on the
ultima; also KLEIDA), and PROFHTIS/PROFHTIN. The HS/HTOS nouns, however,
always have A."

Hope this helps. You can see that I consider this a matter of orthography.

Carlton L. Winbery
Prof. NT & Greek La College