Should anything be read into the uses of the two different forms of acc.
sing. of ChARIS: ChARITA (e.g. Ac 24:27) and ChARIN (e.g. in the enigmatic
ChARIN ANTI ChARITOS of Jn 1:16)? Or should this be considered nothing
more than essentially a question of orthography?
(BTW, I'm aware of the role of ChARIN as a preposition --e.g. Lk 7:47. On
the other hand, it seems prehaps curious that, given the opportunity for
confusion between the two uses of ChARIN, that ChARIN remains by far the
more common of the two forms available for use as a noun.)
http://www.sover.net/~nichael Be as passersby -- IC