My first question is from Matt.1:18c, . . . Prin H sunelqein
autous. . . . What is the purpose of the H in this passage? I use
to know, but know I am totally dumbfounded! It is as if the
sentence could be read without the H!
Second, vs. 20 says ". . . Mh pobhqhs paralabein Mariam thn
gunaika sou." I translated this as "Do not be afraid to take Mary
(as) your wife." The only problem is the word 'as' is not in the
text! Does anyone suggest the insertion of 'as' to make sense of the
text? And if so, why doesn't the Greek test use the word 'ws'? This
would seem to be good enough in any case!
My last question is does anyone know anything about whether or
not a cognate accusative is a phenomenon borrowed from semitic
languages? The verse in my mind is Matt. 2:10 ". . . exaphsan xaran.
. . ." The cognate accusative was indeed part of my training in
claasical Greek, but I have to admit it is a strange animal, and it
makes me wonder is such 'strangeness' due to English as my first
language or a semitism in Greek.
Thanks to all
Peace and Love,
Timothy T. Dickens
Philosophy means the study of wisdom, and by wisdom we understand not only prudence in affairs, but also a perfect knowledge of all things which man can know both for the conduct of his life and for the conservation of his health and
the invention of all the arts."
Rene Descartes, French Philosopher, scientist and mathematician,