Re: Questions from Matthew's gospel and semitic languages

Mr. Timothy T. Dickens (
Sun, 06 Oct 1996 21:07:21

>Carl Conrad gave you good information here. Let me simply add that
> accoring to Jewish law of the time, marriage took place in two
actions. The first was the signing of the GIT, marriage contract,
between the fathers of bride and groom. That made the woman legally
the wife of the man. The second stage was the ceremonial taking of
the wife to her husband's home. In Matt 1:20 there is no need to
insert an "as"; one ought to translate: "Don't be afraid to take
your wife Mary to [your] home."

Dear Prof. Krentz,

Looking at the text a second time, the phase is ". . .mh pobhqeis
paralabein Mariam thn gunaika sou." I do not see the word "home" as
you wrote above. Secondly, I noticed that Latin leaves out the word
'as' in many instances also. Cicero advocatus: Cicero 'as' lawyer.
Thus, Greek as well as Latin seems to allow for an understood ws. I
could back this up with numerous citiations if you like.


Peace and Love,

Timothy T. Dickens
Smyrna, GA Home School

Simon Peter said to them, 'Let Mary leave us, for women are not worthy of life,' Jesus said, 'I myself shall make her male, so that she too may become a living spirit resembling male. For every woman who will make herself male will enter the kingdom
of Heaven."

The gospel according to Thomas, saying #114 from the Nag Hammadi Library.