Re: Questions from Matthew's gospel and semitic languages

Edgar M. Krentz (
Fri, 11 Oct 1996 16:49:31 -0500

You wrote some time ago:

>Dear Prof. Krentz,
>Looking at the text a second time, the phase is ". . .mh pobhqeis
>paralabein Mariam thn gunaika sou." I do not see the word "home" as
>you wrote above. Secondly, I noticed that Latin leaves out the word
>'as' in many instances also. Cicero advocatus: Cicero 'as' lawyer.
>Thus, Greek as well as Latin seems to allow for an understood ws. I
>could back this up with numerous citiations if you like.
No, the word home is not there in the sense of OIKOS being written out.You
should not expect a one to one correspondence between Greek terms and
English translation. In this context the verb PARALABEIN means to take
home. Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich Danker (BAFD) states: "Of one's wio: take her
into one's home Mt 1:20, 24 (cf. Hdt. 4, 155; Lucian, Toxar. 24; SSol 8:2;
Jos. Ant. 1,302; 17,9).

Sorry it took me this long to answer you, but I had a series of lectures to
prepare and didn't really have time to respond.

Edgar Krentz, New Testament OR ***** NEW E-MAIL Address:
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
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