> Now, as for a place which is not nicely written (from a grammatical
> perspective), and one which has been bothering me, is Mk16:6
> ...: IDE hO TOPOS hOPOU EQHKAN AUTON.
> We have IDE, singular, apparently spoken to three women (the
> imperative in v7 is plural). Why is TOPOS nominative instead of
> accusative as the direct object? I suppose that IDE could be use
> absolutely, with an implicit ESTIN for the rest of the fragment:
> "See, [it is] the place where they laid him." Nevertheless, this
> can't be a specimen of good Greek.
This seems to me a sign of someone using Greek as a second language.
It can be "good" in the sense that it is grammatically possible, but
definitely not natural.
In His Service,
Shikai Ronnie Poon
Academic Dean, Alliance Bible Seminary
22 Peak Road, Cheung Chau, NT, Hong Kong
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