Mikael Persson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Tue, 12 Nov 1996 23:09:35 GMT
Is there any connection between the two occurrences of "the many"
(OI POLLOI) in Rom 5:19, implying that the latter ones are the same as
the first ones? Or is it just contrasting the singularity in "of the
one" (TOU EVOS)?
PS. Please excuse me if I'm using the wrong translitteration