Lee Matheny (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Wed, 18 Dec 1996 21:39:25 -0800
I have lurked because I have just started studying Greek and feel too
newbie to understand most posts let alone add to the discussion. However,
I have a question, how can the greek be used to reconcile the death of
Judas. I have looked at the greek in both Acts 1:18 and Matt., Papias'
writing, and the lexicons, parsing etc. The word describing "hanging" in
some of my reference works says that extrabiblical sources meant to choke
in anger? Also, if Matt. was written in Hebrew first, could this have an
effect? Just thoughts. If this has exceeded the limits, I apologize. take
ps. please be patient, I am only now learning my paradigms.