Re: Luke 2:14--new question
KEN LITWAK (KDLITWAK@concentric.net)
Fri, 27 Dec 1996 16:12:32 -0800
I wouldlike to add to Edward Hobbs' comments regarding the Hebraic
structure of the Canticles in Luke 1-2 my own not so humble opinion.
First, regarding the verbs, there is a thought-provoking article in
JSNT, 1994? on Hebrew verb forms and the Canticles in Luke 1-2. I don't
remember the whole argument but I was mostly interested in the author's
comments regarding the use of "past" tense verbs in the magnificat and I
think he did a good job of showing the use of the Hebrew perfect "tense"
in an analogous manner. My own work inthis area, comparing the
Canticles, particularly 1:46-55 to the Qumran Hodayot material has
convinced me that much of ther material for the canticles can be found
in Hebrew geographically and temporally very close to 1st cent. CE
Palestine and that this general Jewish piety in the period provides a
better source for Luke's canticles than any other proposed thus far.
I'm completely convinced of this for the magnificat, while the other
canticles I might not take as strong a position on.
Looking for a new academic home