Re: Re[2]: JOHN 1

On 12 Jul 1994 David.Wigtil@hq.doe.gov wrote:

> Once again into the fray of John 1....  There are grammatical monographs 
> and multiple live examples that clearly demonstrate that an anarthrous 
> (article-less) nominative noun commonly stands in contrast to one that does 
> have an article, and that this construction differentiates predicate 
> modifier from subject without regard for the "definiteness" of the 
> predicate.  This is so throughout the New Testament and in ancient Greek 
> generally.  
 "Translating" doesn't resolve John 1:1 and won't. 
> "Thinking in Greek", or our closest modern approximation, does.

    The grammatical explanation is familiar, but could your perhaps cite
analagous examples found elsewhere?
    "Thinking in Greek" apparently does not solve the problem--thus the
Arian controversy.  It also implies that a concept meaningful to a Greek
cannot be expressed with clarity in English, which seems dubious.  Perhaps
you could clarify?