John 1

Why question the meaning of this?  Is there some hidden "truth" that 
would challange the widely accepted translation/interpetation of 
John 1:1.  If God could Divinely inspire the Greek writers to write the 
passage,  would He not also see that it was not grossly mis-interpeted 
by the vast-majority of texts?  <sarcassicly>  But, of course, YOU 
(noone in paticular) could be the "chosen-one" to enlighten the world on 
a "hidden truth" that would change vastly popular interpetataion.  I'm 
afraid that it this were the case, that person would have just stepped 
into of dangerous territory of darkening the Gospel and perverting the 
Truth.  For instance, I knew a man who took the saying of Jesus on the 
cross, "Eloi Eloi, lama sabachthani"  to mean, "My God, My Divine 
Strength, You have remained with me and have given water to flow as a 
river because of my sufferings." (something to that effect)  --- He 
could not believe what the Greek said, nor English translation because 
he could not see God forsaking His Son, not even for a moment.  But, 
Jesus had to be forsaken so that even a false-prophet could be saved.  
He changed the meaning and perverted the truth that would even save him 
from the judgement of being utterly forsaken.  Please, consider that 
changing interpetation to fit a minority view, should be heavily weighed 
against what God intended.  My friend, you will not know God unless you 
spend time with Him.  And unless you spend time with HIM, you could very 
well mis-interpet His Words and be using your words, or even worse, 
words perveted by the father of lies.

Wade Balzer
Insight Direct, Inc.
Voice: (800) 805-3042, Fax: (602) 902-1180
email: wbalzer@insightd.com