RE: Man born blind, Jn.9:2
Date sent: 17-OCT-1994 13:55:14 MET
Just my two cents :
>From: MX%"email@example.com" 16-OCT-1994 10:02:53.85
>Subj: Man born blind, Jn.9:2
>Does anyone have an explanation for John 9:2 other than a belief
>in some sort of transmigration of souls or reincarnation?
>Maybe the solution is not so difficult. We do not need at all to
>suppose any belief in trasmigration.
>What is really implied in the question is the existence of two
>opposites theological doctrines: a) if someone suffers a terrible
>misfortune, this is a punishment for his own sins; b) if someone
>suffers a terrible misfortune, this is a punishment for his parents' sins.
>But the case the disciples here consider is an extreme one: a borderline
>case. It upsets the balance between those two options, because a man
>born blind was not able to commit sin before being born.. So the
>disciples' dilemma is a fictitious one. Formally it admits both options:
>either this man is punished for his own or for his parents' sins.
>Substantially and actually it admits but one: that man is punished for
>his parents' sins. The disciples' dilemma is a rhetorical question. It
>does not really admit the first option, as clearly impossible. It means:
>we have to think that he is punished for his parents' sins, do not we?
There can also be a reference to the believe that we are not free to
avoid our fate : God can know that we will sin and therefore punish us in
advance, time being not really a concern in Eternity, dealing with immortal
souls... I know that this attitude has been condemned since that time, but I
have in mind that it was not so obvious in Antiquity. I'm unable to quote any
text to support my opinion, but I'm sure that all the people of this list have
a lot in mind, pro or con, isn't true ?
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