Re: Q and Papias
> How can literary relationship between Luke and Matthew be conclusively
> denied in the face of extended passages that have identical Greek text?
> To me that is explicable in very few ways: (1) Mt copied Lk; (2) Lk
> copied Mt; (3) Lk & Mt both copied a third source; (4) the identical
> texts sprang like Athena from the head of Zeus. It is not simply a matter
> of similar accounts of similar or the same events told by different
> witnesses to the same events, but of identical Greek text in several
Another possibility is scribal harmonization, though the textual evidence
is meager. Do we have good 2nd and 3rd century witness for the nearly
identical passages in Mt and Lk?
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