Re: Q and Papias
> In many cases the differences in wording can be explained simply as
> "Matthew's" improving (in his eyes) or changing a term in Mark that was
> found inappropriate or inelegant.
Once again, though David, you have put the cart before the horse. If
you posit the 2 Source Hypothesis, your point is that Matt changed
Mark-it must be if this theory is true. On the other hand if you take
those glasses off and posit another theory, such as Farmer-Griesbach,
then it becomes Mark who has "improved" Matthew. In other words, your
statement here is part of the problem not the solution, depending as it
does on the theory to which one subscribes. It is not in itself an
argument-PROVE that one changed the other-you cannot unless you begin
with an a priori judgement. And it is this judgement that some of us are
calling into question.
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