Larry W. Hurtado wrote:
> (4) Is it significant that the only refs. to a Kephas are in Paul, and
> only in passages where he is at pains to assert his rights and status vis
> a vis Jerusalem authorities? (I wonder, in other words, if "Kephas" is
> not to be seen as mainly a rhetorical device of Paul to show that he's on
> a "first-name basis" with "Peter" and can name drop with the best of them.)
Or, could "Cephas" be seen as a rhetorical device on Paul's part
to hint that Peter has his sympathies more with the Jewish Christians
that with the Gentiles?
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- Re: Cephas
- From: "Larry W. Hurtado" <firstname.lastname@example.org>