b-greek-digest V1 #880

b-greek-digest           Friday, 29 September 1995     Volume 01 : Number 880

In this issue:

        Re: More questions on Mark 
        Re: Classical Greek, etc. 


From: BibAnsMan@aol.com
Date: Thu, 28 Sep 1995 22:43:18 -0400
Subject: Re: More questions on Mark 

On 9-28-95, Bruce Terry  wrote:

<<Apparently you missed the discussion earlier this year in which it was
out that the LXX of Ex. 3:14 has hO WN used alone of God rather than EGW
First it says EGW EIMI hO WN "I am the Being" and then it says hO WN
APESTALKEN ME PROS hUMAS "The Being sent me to you."  However, this is not
equivalent of Yahweh; that in verse 15 is KURIOS.>>

Bruce, you are disagreeing with scholars greater than me on this issue.  A.T.
Robertson comments on John 8:58 saying, "Undoubtedly here Jesus claims
eternal existence iwth the absolute phrase used of God" (Word Pictures in the
New Testament, Vol. V, pp. 158-9).  Even in John 8:24, he says, "Jesus seems
to claim absolute divine being as in 8:58" (p. 146).

As for this use in the LXX of the Old Testament, see Deuteronomy 32:39.  An
astounding similar phrase occurs in Isaiah 43:10 where the very words occur
HINA PISTEUSETE---HOTI EGO EIMI.  Furthermore, Kittel regards the same
quoting Isaiah 43:10 as well.  He says, "He is equal with the Father....The
point is not Jesus' self-identification as the Messiah ("I am he") but his
supratemporal being" (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament Abridged in
One Volume, ed. by Geoffrey W. Bromiley, p. 207).  

Such noteable scholarship as Baur, Arndt, and Gingrich include the LXX of
Exodus 3:14 in the same section as John 8:58, discussing EGO EIMI used its
reference to God  (A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, p. 223).


Jim McGuire
Professor at
Logos Bible Institute
13248 Roscoe Blvd
Sun Valley, CA  91352


From: BibAnsMan@aol.com
Date: Thu, 28 Sep 1995 22:43:28 -0400
Subject: Re: Classical Greek, etc. 

In a message dated 95-09-28 09:59:02 EDT, Eric Weiss writes:

>I took/am taking (this is my 2nd year) NT Greek because I want to read the 
>Greek New Testament.  Various posts in the past have indicated that it is 
>good to precede Hellenistic/NT Greek with a year of Classical and/or Attic 
>Greek, though I don't think all seminaries do this.
>  - How crucial is knowing these earlier forms of Greek to understanding the

>Greek New Testament?

It is valuable experience to study classical Greek since it is the ancestor
of the Koine Greek of the New Testament.  It has been argued, however, that
current day Greek is closer to the Koine Greek than Classical Greek is.  But
I have seen a danger in that some from either of the other two schools have
read their interpretations into the Koine Greek of the Bible.  They sometimes
foist their meanings and rules onto the Greek of the New Testament.

The Greek of the New Testament is a language in and of itself, the common
language of the people of that day.  And yet, even the Bible has its own
interpretation of its words.  In other words, we must be careful not to take
extrabiblical references of words and foist their meaning on a biblical
passage.  Take the words in context of the Scripture first, then look to the

Three rules of hermeneutics: 1) Context .... 2) Context .... 3) Context.
 That is a good rule to follow.  Today, when the Christian uses certain
words, they don't necessarily mean what the world means by the same word.
 Take for example the word "love."

Let me know if I can help further in anything mentioned here,

Grace to you,

Jim McGuire
Professor at 
Logos Bible Institute
13248 Roscoe Blvd
Sun Valley, CA  91352


From: JFFPTRS@aol.com
Date: Fri, 29 Sep 1995 00:02:08 -0400
Subject: Unsubscribe 



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