Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1-4
Numberup at worldnet.att.net
Numberup at worldnet.att.net
Wed Dec 22 17:07:52 EST 1999
You are of course, grammatically correct. But I think the writer's (John's) context
and target audience enter the picture, as well as the target audience of the
translator into English.
Solomon Landers
Memra Institute for Biblical Research
http://www.memrain
Steven Craig Miller wrote:
>
> Why would "he, him" be a better translation? The pronouns AUTOU & AUTWi are
> only masculine because the Greek term LOGOS is grammatically masculine. But
> in English the term "word" is considered to be a "thing," and normally in
> English we would refer to such a term as "it." Grammatically, it seems to
> me that "it" would be the better translation.
>
> -Steven Craig Miller
> Alton, Illinois (USA)
> scmiller at www.plantnet.com
> Disclaimer: "I'm just a simple house-husband (with no post-grad degree),
> what do I know?"
>
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