Pronouns in John 1:1 and ! John 1-4
KJohn36574 at aol.com
KJohn36574 at aol.com
Wed Dec 22 17:03:43 EST 1999
To: Steven Craig Miller
Boyce W. Blackwelder stated:
"The noun logos (from the verb lego, to collect, put words side by side,
relate, speak, say) means reason, speech, or word. It signifies not only a
word in the grammatical sense, but a spoken word which implies an idea or
concept. It denotes, therefore, both the thought inwardly conceived in the
mind and outwardly expressed through the vehicle of language."
("Light from the Greek New Testament" (Grand Rapids: Baker Book House), 40.
I think "the logos" as an "instrumental force" is probably too limiting. I
think "the logos" in the man Christ Jesus was more than God's "power", since
Jesus Christ was also the "love and wisdom" of God (Paul). He was the
Shekinah glory of God in the flesh. The "Expression" of God the Father. Or
God the Father expressing himself in a human being. The Son "exegeted him
[God the Father]" (Jn. 1:18). As Irenaeus said so well:
"The Father is that which is invisible about the Son, the Son is that which
is visible about the Father."
"...He [John] relates, therefore, with the utmost simplicity of language, the
scenes in which Jesus seemed to him most significantly to have revealed His
power and His goodness, and most forcibly to have demonstrated that the
Father was in Him."
Marcus Dods, "The Expositor's Bible" (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1947), 115.
See also: John 8:19; 14:6-10 as evidence that the Father was in Jesus Christ.
Ken Johnson (Eph. 4:4-6)
Elk Grove, CA
KJohn36574 at aol.com
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