Smart's rule and John 20:28
One of the McKays
musicke at ozemail.com.au
Sun Oct 22 21:59:35 EDT 2000
> I have recently been informed of the following rule of Koine Greek which
> has been called "Smart's rule":
>
Hi Dan
Can you tell us about Smart, please? Who is he [or she?]
> "In native KOINE Greek when the copulative KAI connects two titles of
> personal description [viz. singular nouns, plural nouns, article noun kai
> noun constructions (e.g. 1Th 3:11) or compound proper name (e.g. 2Th
> 2:16) which are both either articular or anarthrous] and a personal
> pronoun in the genitive case modifies the first of the said titles, and is
> repeated with respect to the second title, there are always two persons
> (e.g. Jn 20:28; 1Th 3:11; 2Th 2:16;1Ti 1:1) or groups of persons (e.g. Mt
> 12:49; Mk 3:33-34) in view."
I can't see the point of this. In the other verses cited, it seems obvious
that 2 people are being spoken of. But in John 20:28, it seems obvious that
Thomas is calling Jesus hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO QEOS MOU.
And the text itself says he addresses his comments to Jesus:
EIPEN AUTWi
Are you saying he is addressing Jesus as Lord and God [the Father] as God?
This doesn't seem correct.
I have heard two explanations of this verse:
1. Thomas is acknowledging Jesus' divinity, having become comvinced of this
because he now knows Jesus has been raised to life.
2. He is blaspheming and is saying "Oh my God!"
I have never heard anyone else say that he is addressing 2 people.
David McKay
musicke at ozemail.com.au
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