Luke 9:58

Rbsads at aol.com Rbsads at aol.com
Wed Jul 4 18:27:29 EDT 2001


In a message dated 7/4/01 1:12:25 PM Eastern Daylight Time, 
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu writes:

"I've always thought that this construction was a Latinism in Greek."

I am almost embarrassed to continue my participation in this discussion, as 
it is quickly proceeding beyond my ability even to follow it.  But before 
there is a discussion about Latinisms in GNT or in Koine Greek, which will 
lose me, let me ask whether it is possible that because the original texts 
are all in capitals without punctuation accent marks that the OUK EXEI POU 
THN KEQALHN KLINH was written ambiguously?

(Iver, Richard and Carl thanks for your patience with my earlier 
transcription error involving KEQALHN.)

The OUK EXEI POU THN KEQALHN KLINH can be translated either as an infinitive 
clause completing the sentence or as a sentence ending with "has none" and 
followed with a deliberative, rhetorical, direct question "Where may he rest 
his head?"

Though my NA text does not mention this latter possibility.

I personally like better the reading that "the son of man has none. Where may 
he bow down the head?"  And while my preference is based on interpretational 
concerns rather than grammatical ones, is there not sufficient grammatical 
reason to prefer reading this construction as a rhetorical question, with or 
without Latinisms?

Does not POU with a circumflex accent (interrogative particle) and a 
subjunctive verb imply a deliberative question?

In the John 11:57 verse where POU~ is used as an indirect question the 
subjunctive verbs can be attributed to the presence of INA and EAN. 

INA ....MHNUSH ( the priests and pharisees order that ... they should 
disclose - subjunctive mood for disclose)

EAV TIS GNO (if anyone might know where he is - subjunctive mood for know)

It is interesting that the verb associated with POU~ is in the indicative 
mood.

POU~ ESTIN

In the Luke passage the verb is subjunctive, and the only reason I can 
discern is that the sentence is a deliberative, rhetorical question.  

It would seem to me that POU without the circumflex would be translated as 
"the son of man has nowhere to rest his head." But that construction would be 
better served by the infinitive rather that the subjunctive mood.

I guess I am left with reading this verse as "the son of man has none. Where 
may he lay down his head?"

Thanks,

Richard Smith
Chattanooga, TN
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