Rom. 2:6-8--why nominatives in THAT slot?

Daniel dlc at multnomah.edu
Fri Aug 9 18:10:39 EDT 2002


    I would agree with Clay's response, regarding the implicit copulative. If I
remember correctly, this is how both the KJV and Darby handle this verse, along with
the NIV.  However, I sympathize with Mike's concern, which is still: "Why?"
    And it seems to me that the answer is found in Mike's original post.  Mike
wrote,

> Given the parallelism in this text, why are ORGH and QUMOS nominatives?

Perhaps this is the point . . . while there is certainly a surface level parallelism
in the passage (up to the final three words), there is not a syntactical parallel.
It is destroyed by the nominatives  Thus, the reason for the nominatives may simply
be to make the reader stop and say "Hmmm . . . ORGH KAI QUMOS !"  If so, it worked
:-)

Daniel
--
Daniel L. Christiansen
Professor, Bible & Theology, Biblical Languages
Multnomah Bible College and Biblical Seminary
(503) 251-6436





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