John 3:21
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Tue Aug 20 00:55:03 EDT 2002
In a message dated 8/19/2002 10:09:57 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
emory2oo2 at hotmail.com writes:
hO DE POIWN THN ALHQEIAN ERCETAI PROS TO FWS, hINA FANERWQHi AUTOU
TA ERGA hOTI EN QEWi ESTIN EIRGASMENA
The idea seems to me to be that one comes to the light in order
to show forth that his/her deeds were done "in God." This light shines
upon the deeds so that those who care to look upon them can see that
they were done "in God."
What in the world does this phrase "in God" mean? Has John developed
this idea of "in God" upto this point? Is this the first use of this
new concept of "in God?" (Prior to this, people could believe in God, but
that use of "in him" does not seem to fit here.)
__________________________________________
This very question arose on the b-translation list. Unlike some of the
failure to understand phrases in translation I think this failure to
understand was quite legitimate. Speaking of doing something "in God" does
seem rather strange. The term EN QEWi is used five times in the NT.
1. Our passage
2. Rom 2.17 where Paul speaks of the Jew boasting of his relationship to
God.
3. 1 Thess. 1.1 where Paul greets the Thessalonians as being in relationship
to God
4. 2 Thess. 1.1 similarly
5. Jude 1 a similar usage
Our passage, however, appears to be somewhat different. Indeed, Wallace
cautions (p. 145) against the confusion of the dative of reference with the
dative of sphere. This appears to me to be more likely to be a dative of
sphere than a dative of reference. It would appear that what he has in mind
is a sphere of influence governed by God in which the deeds would be
considered to be carried out.
gfsomsel
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