John 6:35
Clwinbery at aol.com
Clwinbery at aol.com
Fri Aug 23 21:36:42 EDT 2002
In a message dated 8/23/02 8:06:43 PM, Polycarp66 at aol.com writes:
<<
To sum up: In general, time is absolute in the indicative, relative in the
participle, and nonexistent in the other moods.
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>>
I don't think I would ever say that "time is absolute in the indicative."
There are too many contexts where time is not a factor. Even in the future
there are the gnomic futures that do not indicate any time, but there seems
to be IMO more indication of time (marked if you will) for the future than
for the other Greek "tenses."
I think it is important to say about the mixing of aorist subjunctives and
future indicatives that the future is often used where the aorist subj. would
be expected with hINA, the negative MH, etc. The use here in John seems to me
to be more stylistic than anything.
Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College
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