John 6:35

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Fri Aug 23 22:58:26 EDT 2002


In a message dated 8/23/2002 9:37:18 PM Eastern Daylight Time, 
Clwinbery at aol.com writes:


In a message dated 8/23/02 8:06:43 PM, Polycarp66 at aol.com writes:

<< 

To sum up: In general, time is absolute in the indicative, relative in the 

participle, and nonexistent in the other moods.

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>>

I don't think I would ever say that "time is absolute in the indicative." 
There are too many contexts where time is not a factor. Even in the future 
there are the gnomic futures that do not indicate any time, but there seems 
to be IMO more indication of time (marked if you will) for the future than 
for the other Greek "tenses."

I think it is important to say about the mixing of aorist subjunctives and 
future indicatives that the future is often used where the aorist subj. would 

be expected with hINA, the negative MH, etc. The use here in John seems to me 

to be more stylistic than anything.
_____________________________________

Come, come, Carlton.  Let's get the attribution correct.  I was quoting 
Wallace here.  polycarp66 at aol.com did not say that.

gfsomsel



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