John 6:35
Mark Wilson
emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Fri Aug 23 23:29:17 EDT 2002
Wallace says:
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>To sum up: In general, time is absolute in the indicative, relative in the
>participle, and nonexistent in the other moods.
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Seems odd to use "general...absolute" in the same context, but
from the standpoint of the Future, I know that Wallace states
that "it is the only tense that is always related to time,
regardless of mood." (pg. 566, GGBB).
What caught me attention was Carlton's statement:
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Even in the future
>there are the gnomic futures that do not indicate any time,
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Do not indicate any time?
"Gnomic" means that a temporal proposition is not
being asserted. Tenses act quite differently when used
in non-temporal proposition/assertions.
I would note also that the three Gnomic Futures Wallace
lists do indeed seem to be simple future tense assertions,
even if they are true "any time." I do not know how one
might conceive of them as not indicating any time!
Finally, I know of no Aorist Indicative that is not Past Tense when
a temporal proposition is being asserted, even if you include
Gnomic (non-temporal) Aorists...that is, they are true at any time,
which would include the past. So, yes, I guess I would say that
generally speaking, Indicatives are absolute when making
temporal assertions.
My thoughts
Mark Wilson
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