John 1
osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au
osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au
Tue Aug 27 22:45:02 EDT 2002
In John 1:3 the word 'him' was translated 'it' until the Rheims Bible of
the late 1500's. When we go to verse 5 the same word is translated 'it' and
in verse 4, 10,11 and 12 the same word is translated as 'him'. To me it is
obvious that the subject is light, especially in verse 10. Should the word
be translated 'him' or 'it' as it is done elsewhere such as Matt.13:19;
Mark 4:19,20; and more particularly Luke 11:28.
Why have translators given the word a personalised meaning in John 1 than
what it appears to demand. Is their any difference between the use of logos
in these other places than in John that would demand the different handling
of 'it' - 'him'.
Lew Osborne
osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au
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