ELHLUQUIAN in Mark 9.1
Patrick James
patrick at basil.u-net.com
Fri Aug 30 18:52:09 EDT 2002
Thank you, Carl, for your pointers and to all who contributed to detailed
discussion on the synoptic apocalypses.
I still have not fully digested Carl's lengthy response, let alone the whole
thread, but I am still uncertain about the implications of the perfect
participle here.
AMHN LEGW hUMIN hOTI EISIN TINES hWDE TWN hESTHKOTWN hOITINES OU MH GEUSWTAI
QANATOU hEWS AN IDWSIN THN BASILEIAN TOU QEOU ELHLUQUIAN EN DUNAMEI
Some say that "seeing the kingdom in power before death" refers to the
Transfiguration (quite plausible since it is the next event recorded in
Mark, though 6 days later), others to the Cross, the Resurrection of Jesus,
Pentecost, John's vision as recounted in Revelation, the sack of Jerusalem,
etc
.
I would like to take this saying in the context of Peter's misunderstanding
that Christ the King could be the "suffering servant" and in that of "eye
opening" in Mark's Gospel in general - seeing the truth (or in this case,
the Truth) right in front of you.
The "who do you say I am?" episode follows from the restoration of sight to
the blind man at Bethsaida (8.22-6), who like Peter in the following verses
does not see clearly at first. So, this two stage healing is often taken as
a pattern for the following verses: Peter will see something, though poorly,
but will then see properly.
Remember also, Mark 4.12 quoting Isaiah on seeing, but not perceiving.
So, I am wondering whether the perfect retains some kind of present state
sense, even though the perfect supposedly became merely a past tense used in
some linguistic registers.
I would translate, roughly as the RSV:
"I tell you the truth: there are some standing here who will not taste death
before they see that the kingdom of God has come in power." ie it is here
now.
Obviously, if the perfect were to have a present state sense here, some
indication, like NUN (with a circumflex) or perhaps HDH (?) would help.
I suggest that Jesus' point is that the kingdom is here now, because He,
Christ the king, is here in front of his disciples, who do not see fully:
the court is in session, they just have not seen that it is there yet.
Jesus, though self-identified as "the suffering servant", is presented as
the king before and during (15.26) his crucifixion, eg:
- The kingdom is near (Mark 1.15) because the king is talking the crowds
- Jesus' entry into Jerusalem is that of the king prophesised in Zecharia.
- Pilate asked Jesus "Are you the king (BASILEUS not XRISTOS) of the Jews?",
Jesus affirmed (15.2).
As for EN DUNAMEI, the king's power, to be sure, has been fully demonstrated
in the first 8 chapters of Mark and continues to be show in the second half.
So, Jesus is saying that some will see properly before they die, despite
Peter's recent misunderstanding, his 'blindness'..
Jesus' words at Luke 17.21 seem to imply a present kingdom as well:
OUDE EROUSIN "IDOU hWDE" H "EKEI", IDOU GAR hH BASILEIA TOU QEOU ENTOS hUMWN
ESTIN.
nb ESTIN not ESTAI.
I realise that this reply has strayed from questions of the Greek language
as used in Mark or the NT in general. Principally, I am only interested in
whether ELHLUQUIAN. I am also sure that I have missed something obvious that
prevents such an interpretation of the force of the pefect participle here.
Thanks in advance for any responses and help with this question,
---
Patrick James : pj221 at cam.ac.uk
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