Romans 10:20: Are all English translations in error?
Richard
r.vandenhengel at hetnet.nl
Wed Dec 4 16:39:06 EST 2002
Steven wrote:
> (2) I am=97forgive me=97 somewhat amused by your statement that the =
> Dutch=20
> interpretation accurately expresses the relationship of the parallel=20
> clauses in Romans 10.20, while the traditional translations overlook=20
> it. You seem oblivious to the fact that you are using your=20
> understanding of the sense of one clause to prove the sense of the=20
> other and vice versa! This is circular reasoning at its worst! You have=20=
>
> not even begun to prove that EITHER verb should be understood as=20
> "available to be." As for the second clause, it not only should NOT be=20=
>
> understood as meaning "I was available to be manifest," but, in light=20
> of what it does patently mean, offers more convincing proof that your=20
> understanding of the FIRST clause is erroneous. EMFANHS EGENOMHN TOIS=20
> EME MH EPERWTWSIN on the face of it says and means "I became manifest=20
> to those who did not ask for me," not "I was available to become=20
> manifest to those who did not ask for me."
Steven, once again thanks for your reaction.
I didn't expect so much could be said about Romans 10:20. I am learning a
lot of your way of arguing: drawing parallels, etcetera. Things are
getting clearer to me. Can you tell me where I can find such translating
rules?
Still I have got a few questions. You will find them below.
You made me aware of the fact that my English translation of the Dutch
translations of Romans 10:20 was wrong. I translated: "I was to be found
for those who did not seek Me; I was to be seen for those who did not ask
for Me". I should have translated: "I was ready to be found for those who
did not seek Me, I was visible for those who did not ask for me" or even
better: "I was findable for those who did not seek Me, I was visible for
those who did not ask for me". Sorry, sorry, sorry.
The literal translation of EMFANHS is "visible" according to the
Greek-English lexicon of Walter Bauer. Maybe now you understand what I
mean with the parallelism: I was findable/I was visible.
How would you translate the words "I was findable" into Greek?
To my surprise I discovered that the RSV translates Isaiah 65:1 as
follows: 'I was ready to be sought by those who did not ask for me; I was
ready to be found by those who did not seek me. I said, "Here am I, here
am I," to a nation that did not call on my name'.
The LXX has: 'EMFANHS EGENOMHN TOIS EME MH ZHTOUSIN EUREQHN TOIS EME MH
EPERW TWSIN EIPA IDOU EIMI TW EQNEI OI OUK EKALESAN MOU TO ONOMA'.
What do you think of this similarity?
> By the way, if the RSV translation of AUTWi here reflects accurately=20
> the underlying Greek text, 2 Peter 3.14 lends further support to=20
> translating hEUREQHN TOIS EME MH ZHTOUSIN in Romans 10.20 as "I was=20
> found BY those who did not seek me," which you originally denied was=20
> accurate.
You are right. I am looking for a better grammar book. Can you give me a
good advice?
Kind regards,
R. van den Hengel,
The Netherlands.
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