Aorist vs. present infinitive in Matt 5:32

Dale Noonan dknoonan at hotmail.com
Fri Oct 18 15:49:41 EDT 2002


In Matt 5:32, what are the implications of the choice of an aorist
infinitive MOICEUQHNAI in this construction, as compared with the choice
of a present infinitive (MOICEUESQAI)?  What, if anything, can be learned from the 
fact that the writer did not stay with the present (gnomic?) tense used in the
prior verb, POIHi, but chose the aorist MOICEUQHNAI instead?

Similar combinations with POIEW + acc. + infinitive use the present tense,
such as in hINA PUR POIHi KATABAINEIN in Rev 13:13, and also Mark 7:37.



Thanks for any comments,
Dale Noonan
Southern California



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