Aorist vs. present infinitive in Matt 5:32
waldo slusher
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Fri Oct 18 16:50:16 EDT 2002
--- Dale Noonan <dknoonan at hotmail.com> wrote:
> In Matt 5:32, what are the implications of the
> choice of an aorist
> infinitive MOICEUQHNAI in this construction, as
> compared with the choice
> of a present infinitive (MOICEUESQAI)? What, if
> anything, can be learned from the
> fact that the writer did not stay with the present
> (gnomic?) tense used in the
> prior verb, POIHi, but chose the aorist MOICEUQHNAI
> instead?
I would think that the MOICEUW is viewed here from the
standpoint of the divorce already being final. It is
the divorce itself that brings about the completion of
the MOICEUW.
=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AL
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