Aorist vs. present infinitive in Matt 5:32

waldo slusher waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Fri Oct 18 16:50:16 EDT 2002



--- Dale Noonan <dknoonan at hotmail.com> wrote:

> In Matt 5:32, what are the implications of the
> choice of an aorist
> infinitive MOICEUQHNAI in this construction, as
> compared with the choice
> of a present infinitive (MOICEUESQAI)?  What, if
> anything, can be learned from the 
> fact that the writer did not stay with the present
> (gnomic?) tense used in the
> prior verb, POIHi, but chose the aorist MOICEUQHNAI
> instead?

I would think that the MOICEUW is viewed here from the
standpoint of the divorce already being final. It is
the divorce itself that brings about the completion of
the MOICEUW.

=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AL

__________________________________________________
Do you Yahoo!?
Faith Hill - Exclusive Performances, Videos & More
http://faith.yahoo.com



More information about the B-Greek mailing list