Pros

Clwinbery at aol.com Clwinbery at aol.com
Wed Sep 4 18:59:44 EDT 2002



In a message dated 9/4/02 5:23:31 PM, osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au writes:

>I struggle with John 1..
>
>Recently I was told that the word 'Pros' in John 1:1 always means 'beside'
>and never means 'a part of'.
>
>
>Could this be clarified please.
>
>I have translated John 1:1 in this way...
>
>Any comments....
>
>"In the beginning was the declaration of the Divine purpose, and the
>declaration of the divine purpose was with God and the declaration of the
>divine purpose was (or represented) God."
>
>
>Lew Osborne
Lew, we have had many discussions concerning this passage. Start with the 
early archive and search with "John 1:1" in quote marks and you will get 
articles beginning in Aug, 95 that discuss things about this verse you have 
probably never thought of. One caution, the problem is how do we express the 
Greek in English and how do we fit the meanings we come up with in English 
into our own theological schemes. Both are really off limits to this list. 
After reading all the discussions am convinced John intended to write hO 
LOGOS HN QEOS. It fits with the Alexandrian text of 1:18 and seems to mean 
the same. Scribal emendation there seems to indicate that a number of scribes 
had trouble with what John had written.

Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College



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