Pros
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Wed Sep 4 18:28:00 EDT 2002
At 08:16 AM 9/5/02 +1000, you wrote:
>I struggle with John 1..
>
>Recently I was told that the word 'Pros' in John 1:1 always means 'beside'
>and never means 'a part of'.
>
blass-debrunner and dana-mantey discuss the usage of the preposition quite
fully and as far as i recall neither of them define it *a part of*.
>
>Could this be clarified please.
>
>I have translated John 1:1 in this way...
>
>Any comments....
>
>"In the beginning was the declaration of the Divine purpose, and the
>declaration of the divine purpose was with God and the declaration of the
>divine purpose was (or represented) God."
well its a neat translation but i think it a bit overstated. it sounds
pretty sophisticated and i dont really think john's audience was all that
philosophical. as the purpose of any document is to communicate a truth to
an audience we have to keep in mind that john's readers would have been more
interested in something like "in the beginning was the declaration...*
without the additional and textually unattested *divine purpose*.
best
jim
>
>
>Lew Osborne
>
>
>
>
>
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+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies
Quartz Hill School of Theology
Biblical Studies Resources
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
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