accusative indirect objects?

Brian McCarthy mccartbs at utrc.utc.com
Wed Sep 25 15:27:44 EDT 2002


Luke 3:18 is as follows:

>POLLA MEN OUV KAI ETERA PARAKALWN EUHGGELIZETO TON LAON
>which is translated: With many other exhortations therefore preached he
>good tidings unto the people. (ASV)

>My question is why is it TON LAON instead of TWi LAWi. It seems that 'the
>people' is properly the indirect object here, and should thus be in
dative
>case, but quite clearly in the text it is accusative case.

Could it be that although "the people" is the indirect object in the
quoted English translation (he preached it to them) "TON LAON" is the
direct object in the Greek, (he evangelized them)?

N.B. I'm a neophyte (I think that's Greek for "newbie") at all this, so if
I'm all wrong I hope one of the experts will correct me!

Brian McCarthy
mccartbs at utrc.utc.com 




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