[B-Greek] adverbial participle

Clwinbery at aol.com Clwinbery at aol.com
Thu Apr 3 08:32:49 EST 2003


In a message dated 3/31/03 1:25:55 AM, vanepps at attbi.com writes:

>Mr. Winbery,
>
>I appreciate your attempt to unwind my dilema, but I am not speaking of
>Gal
>2:11. I was questioning Paul's use, or better yet our English translation
>of
>Gal 2:16. Normally the rendering of an adverbial perfect participle is
>causal, in which case there are a number of examples of such use in Romans,
>but as far as an English translation, none consider this use of "ohida"
>to
>be causal. I am just wondering if there is an obvious reason for this,
>or if
>context is what is running the translation? I think my original questions
>were: Can someone please send me in the right
>direction as far as reading material goes on the adverbial perfect
>participle, to help me understand the translators decesion, or to better
>inform me on my own decision making process?
>
>
>The verse is given here:
>
>hOTE DE HLQEN KHFAS EIS ANTIOCEIAN, KATA PROSWPON AUTWi ANTESTHN, hOTI
>KATEGNWSMENOS HN.

I do not recall that this was ever answered because of a hectic schedule the 
last week of so. I would simply say that OIDA is usually treated as an old 
perfect form that is with a present meaning and the pluperfect form is 
usually treated as an imperfect. In some contexts there is a possibility of 
seeing something of the sense of "having come to know" but most of the time 
(especially in Johanine settings) it is difficult to distinguish from GINWSKW.

Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College


More information about the B-Greek mailing list