[B-Greek] adverbial participle
Clwinbery at aol.com
Clwinbery at aol.com
Thu Apr 3 08:32:49 EST 2003
In a message dated 3/31/03 1:25:55 AM, vanepps at attbi.com writes:
>Mr. Winbery,
>
>I appreciate your attempt to unwind my dilema, but I am not speaking of
>Gal
>2:11. I was questioning Paul's use, or better yet our English translation
>of
>Gal 2:16. Normally the rendering of an adverbial perfect participle is
>causal, in which case there are a number of examples of such use in Romans,
>but as far as an English translation, none consider this use of "ohida"
>to
>be causal. I am just wondering if there is an obvious reason for this,
>or if
>context is what is running the translation? I think my original questions
>were: Can someone please send me in the right
>direction as far as reading material goes on the adverbial perfect
>participle, to help me understand the translators decesion, or to better
>inform me on my own decision making process?
>
>
>The verse is given here:
>
>hOTE DE HLQEN KHFAS EIS ANTIOCEIAN, KATA PROSWPON AUTWi ANTESTHN, hOTI
>KATEGNWSMENOS HN.
I do not recall that this was ever answered because of a hectic schedule the
last week of so. I would simply say that OIDA is usually treated as an old
perfect form that is with a present meaning and the pluperfect form is
usually treated as an imperfect. In some contexts there is a possibility of
seeing something of the sense of "having come to know" but most of the time
(especially in Johanine settings) it is difficult to distinguish from GINWSKW.
Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College
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