[B-Greek] John 7:31, case & function of rel. pron.?
lisistrata
lisistrata at navegalia.com
Sat Aug 2 04:06:26 EDT 2003
el 2/8/03 04:17, bgreek at ntresources.com en bgreek at ntresources.com escribió:
> I've been mussing over the relative pronoun, hWN, in John 7:31. Why
> is it genitive? I concluded that it is probably due to the
> comparative adj. PLEIONA in the preceding phrase and is thus a
> genitive of comparison (& then discovered that BDAG cites it as such,
> s.v. POLUS.1.b, p. 848). But how then does hWN function in its own
> clause (hWN hOUTOS EPOIHSEN;)? I assume it would have to be taken as
> the dir. object of POIEW--but that seems odd to me. POIEW doesn't
> normally take its D.O. in gen. case (does it?). Although P. has a
> very broad semantic range, its D.O. is almost always acc. (or occas.
> dat.). I don't remember P. with a gen. D.O. elsewhere, nor do I find
> reference to any such use in BDAG or Wallace. (I'm at home this
> evening, so I don't have access to other sources to check this
> further.) The sense is clear enough; to paraphrase, "the Messiah
> won't do greater signs/miracles than [the signs] that this one is
> doing will he?" (Implied answer: 'no' --MH.) Any thoughts or
> suggestions?
>
> Rod Decker
> Baptist Bible Seminary
> Clarks Summit, PA
I think it is a typical case of relative clause that has suffered these
processes:
We should understand an original contruction like this: TOUTWN hA
EPOIHSEN... in which the relative (ac. pl. n., D.O. because of POIEW) has
been attracted into the antecedent case: TOUTWN hWN... and then the
antecedent has been omitted. So, the difficulty is not in POIEW but in the
syntax of relative clauses.
I hope this can help, in spite of my poor English.
David Lucas
Salamanca, España
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